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1st way: exp ∫(e^x)/x (1+x log(x)) dx
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2nd way: integral ∫ log √x(x^n) dx
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derivative If y=acos(log(x)) + bsin(log(x)), prove that x^2y2+xy1+y=0
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2nd way: trig integral ∫ 1/( √3 sin(x) + cos(x)) dx
3 ways: exp integral ∫ln(e^x) + ln(e^(-x)) dx
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Jahanamiyu Ki lbtedai Mehman Nawazi -Reminder from Quran
AP Calculus 3rd way: exp integral 1/(1+e^x) dx [withOUT u-sub]